Last Year UPSC Prelims Question Paper: Check Here

The UPSC will be announcing the times and dates of UPSC Exam 2019 in the month of 17th June. The Exam is by and large organized in three phases which are Prelims, Mains, and interview. The exam embraces general subject in the Prelims examination.

It is not included with a great deal of determination to clear the exam but have but it’s not going to be an easy pathway. A great proportion of candidates are taking part in the examination desiring the seats. Before advancing to further stage of examination, it is indispensable to weigh up last year UPSC Civil Services Exam question paper.

Union Public Service Commission would like to distinguish aspirants with encouraging flairs and ability which is required to execute as an effectual officer. They are not intended for categorizing these knacks. As a result, the majority of contenders reckon them from UPSC Syllabus, UPSC Civil Services Previous Year Question Paper and reaction from successful candidates and specialists.

Civil Service Prelims 2017 


Answering and analyzing the previous year UPSC question paper will help the aspirants to know the trend, nature, and pattern of questions asked by UPSC. The UPSC IAS Prelims Paper depicted a departure from the direction of last four years. Although in 2015 the number of questions from current affairs has augmented.

UPSC has fundamentally reallocated their prominence on Current Affairs mixed with conventional areas. In the current affairs section, in place of involving current affairs questions to ideas, it was further on accurate side. The number of unavailable questions has increased than the previous year.

Solution to the UPSC Prelims GS 1 2017: 


Q1. Concerning the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

  1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
  2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Category: Polity

Explanation: A Private Member’s bill is introduced by any Member of Parliament other than a minister. 14 private member’s bills have been passed since independence.

Q2. Concerning the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
  2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver, and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.
  3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having aware of this animal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: c

Category: Ancient History

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Indus Valley people did not know about iron. Statement 3 is actually contentious. While the Indus Valley people did not domesticate horses, recent studies have shown that they may have been aware of horses. However, we can take conventional wisdom and take this statement as correct. But for an official confirmation, we have to wait for the official answer key that the UPSC would release next year.

Q3. Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news concerning

  1. Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.
  2. Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.
  3. Reserving some skilled jobs to the rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.
  4. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.

Answer: a

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme was launched to certify construction workers in five states initially, Haryana, Odisha, Telangana, Delhi, and Chhattisgarh, in skills acquired through traditional channels.

Q4. From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?

  1. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
  2. Nallamala Forest
  3. Nagarhole National Park
  4. Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

Answer: a

Category: Geography

Explanation: Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is located in the Western Ghats in Tamil Nadu. It is located in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between the Western and Eastern Ghats.

Q5. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

  1. Privileges
  2. Restraints
  3. Competition
  4. Ideology

Answer: a

Category: Polity

Explanation: Equality in society is the absence of privileges. Article 7 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights state that, “All are equal before the law and are entitled without any discrimination to equal protection of the law.”

Q6. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade-Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):

  1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b

Category: Environment & Ecology

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because TRAFFIC is a joint program of the World Wildlife Fund and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Statement 2 is correct.

Q7. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42ndAmendment to the Constitution?

  1. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
  2. Participation of workers in the management of industries
  3. Right to work, education and public assistance
  4. Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

Answer: b

Category: Polity

Explanation: Option (b) is article 43(a) of the 42nd amendment.

Q8. Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
  2. Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
  3. Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
  4. Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

Answer: c

Category: Polity

Explanation: Options (a) and (d) is incorrect. There can be a doubt between options (b) and (c). Option (b) is incorrect because some rights are extra-constitutional and legal.

Q9. Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?

  1. World Economic Forum
  2. UN Human Rights Council
  3. UN Women
  4. World Health Organization

Answer: a

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: Factual

Q10. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?

  1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade.
  2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.
  3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Answer: b

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because this is not related to smart cities. Statement 2 is correct and 3 is incorrect. The Smart India Hackathon was launched by the HRD ministry to provide opportunities for students across the country to give digital solutions to problems faced by people in India.

Q11. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the ‘Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?

  1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
  2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
  3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Answer: a

Category: Economy

Explanation: The Monetary Policy Committee fixes the benchmark policy rate (repo rate) to maintain price stability with the object of growth. Statement 1 is hence, correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because there are only 6 members. Statement 3 is incorrect because the chairman is the bank’s governor.

Q12. Concerning Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a song and dance performance.
  2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
  3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1 and three only
  3. 2 and three only
  4. One only

Answer: b

Category: Art & Culture

Explanation: Statement 2 is wrong because apart from cymbals, drums known as pung are also used.

Q13. Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British Rule?

  1. Lord Cornwallis
  2. Alexander Read
  3. Thomas Munro

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: c

Category: Modern History

Explanation: Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent Settlement system. Alexander Read and Thomas Munro introduced the Ryotwari System.

Q14. In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?

  1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
  2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
  3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: c

Category: Environment

Explanation: Bioremediation is a technique in which microorganisms are used to treat pollutants in a site in which the same process of biodegradation that occurs naturally is simply enhanced. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because heavy metals like cadmium and lead are not easily absorbed by microorganisms.

Q15. The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for

  1. The participation of workers in the management of industries.
  2. Arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes.
  3. An intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute.
  4. A system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.

Answer: d

Category: Modern History

Explanation: This Act provided for a ban on strikes unless a notice of one month was given. There was the widespread protest against this law.

Q16. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

  1. Federalism
  2. Democratic decentralization
  3. Administrative delegation
  4. Direct democracy

Answer: b

Category: Polity

Explanation: Example of local self-government is the Panchayati Raj system.

Q17. Consider the following statements: Concerning the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon

  1. Legislative function.
  2. Executive function.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Category: Polity

Explanation: DPSP is positive obligations for the State. Limitations are set by the fundamental rights.

Q18. The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to

  1. ASEAN
  2. BRICS
  3. EU
  4. G20

Answer: c

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: The Digital Single Market strategy was adopted by European Union on the 6 May 2015. It aims to open up digital opportunities for people and business and enhance Europe’s position as a world leader in the digital economy.

Q19. At one of the place in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at

  1. Bhavnagar
  2. Bheemunipatnam
  3. Chandipur
  4. Nagapattinam

Answer: c

Category: Geography

Explanation: Chandipur, located in Balasore District in Odisha, in a unique beach because of this phenomenon. It is seen nowhere else in the world. It is also called Odisha’s Hide and Seek Beach. Chandipur is also the location of the Ministry of Defence’s Integrated Test Range where Akash, Shaurya, Agni, Prithvi, etc. were launched.

Q20. With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements:

  1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
  2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
  3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Answer: b

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: This Act defines Benami transactions, prohibits them and also provides that violation of the Act is punishable with imprisonment and fine. This Act was recently amended.

Q21. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?

  1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
  2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
  3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders, and birds.

Select the correct using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: c

Category: Environment & Ecology/Biology

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct since butterflies are important for pollination. Statement 3 is correct because butterflies, a part of the food chain are predated upon by wasps, spiders and birds. Statement 2 is incorrect because there is no known correlation between butterflies and fungal infections.

Q22. It is possible to produce algae-based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?

  1. Production of algae-based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.
  2. Setting up and engineering the algae-based biofuels production requires the high level of expertise/ technology until the construction is complete.
  3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large-scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Category: Environment

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Algae farming is possible in land unsuitable for growing plants and for agriculture.

Q23. Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’?

  1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
  2. To reduce the incidence of anemia among young children, adolescent girls, and women.
  3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals, and unpolished rice.
  4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 4 only
  4. 3 and 4 only

Answer: c

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: The key objectives of the National Nutrition Mission are:

  • To create awareness relating to malnutrition amongst pregnant women, lactating mothers, promote healthy lactating practices and importance of balanced nutrition;
  • To improve maternal and child under-nutrition in 200 high burdened districts and to prevent and reduce the under-nutrition prevalent among children below 3 years;
  • To reduce incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.

Eggs and dairy products are a good source of vitamin B12 whose deficiency can lead to anemia.

Q24. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.
  2. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labor movement in British India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b

Category: Modern History

Explanation: There was no provision for fixed wage and formation of trade unions in the Act. The Act introduced some measures to safeguard child-workers. It prohibited employment of children under seven years. It also reduced the number of working hours for children below 12 years and mandated that dangerous machinery be fenced adequately. It also provided for an hour’s rest during work hours for workers and also gave them 4 days leave in a month.

Q25. In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be potential sites for carbon sequestration?

  1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
  2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
  3. Subterranean deep saline formations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Category: Environment

Explanation: Capturing carbon dioxide from the major stationary sources and its storage into deep geological formations is considered as a potential option for combating global warming. All the three given sites are potential carbon dioxide storage options. Carbon sequestration is a natural or artificial process by which carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere and held in solid or liquid form.

Q26. The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to

  1. Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.
  2. Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.
  3. Impose censorship on national press.
  4. Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

Answer: d

Category: Modern History

Explanation: Factual. The Butler Committee of 1927 headed by Sir Harcourt Butler was appointed to examine the relations between the native states and the paramount power and to improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

Q27. The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to

  1. Developing solar power production in our country
  2. Granting licenses to foreign T.V. channels in our country
  3. Exporting our food products to other countries
  4. Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country

Answer: a

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: The policy of Domestic Content Requirement intends to promote the local manufacturing of the components of solar generation equipment including cells and modules.

Q28. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.
  2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: The Nuclear Security Summits are an initiative of the US government and not the UN. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an independent group of non-proliferation experts. It is not an arm of the IAEA.

Q29. Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?

  1. Resident Indian citizens only
  2. Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
  3. All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
  4. All Central Governments Employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004

Answer: c

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: The Central Government had introduced the National Pension System (NPS) with effect from January 1, 2004 (except for armed forces). Then, the state governments adopted it. NPS is applicable to all new employees of the Central government (joined after January 1, 2004), all state government employees, any Indian citizens between the ages of 18 and 60 including NRIs.

Q30. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:

  1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
  2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
  3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Category: Geography

Explanation: The Teesta River originates from the Pahari glacier and flows southward through the Sikkim Himalaya. The river does not flow into the Bay of Bengal directly. It merges with the Brahmaputra which finally flows into the Bay of Bengal. River Rangeet is the main tributary of the River Teesta and is the largest river in Sikkim.

Q31. Consider the following statements:

  1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.
  2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Category: Current Affairs/Health

Explanation: Zika virus is transmitted through the bite of mosquitoes chiefly the Aedes Aegypti mosquito species. It is the same species that transmit dengue, yellow fever and chikungunya. Zika virus can be transmitted through sex and blood transfusion.

Q32. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
  2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: a

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: Factual. In 2010, BIS was made mandatory for automotive tires and tubes. AGMARK is issued by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection for agricultural produce.

Q33. What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme?

  1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
  2. It provides the farmer’s access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Category: Economy/Agriculture

Explanation: National Agriculture Market (NAM) is a pan-India electronic trading portal which networks the existing APMC (Agricultural Produce Market Committee) mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities. It provides many services including information about commodity arrivals and prices, buy and sell trade offers, provision to respond to trade offers, etc.

Q34. Concerning the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:

  1. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
  2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Category: Economy

Explanation: See PIB:

Q35. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?

  1. Gharial
  2. Indian wild ass
  3. Wild Buffalo

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Category: Environment

Explanation: Factual. All three species are mentioned in Schedule I for the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Q36. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

  1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
  2. They are, correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. only 1
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Category: Polity

Explanation: Fundamental rights are not correlative to legal duties and there is no legislative process to enforce them.

Q37. Consider the following pairs:

  1. Radhakanta Deb – First President of the British Indian Association
  2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty – Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
  3. Surendranath Banerjee – Founder of the Indian Association

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Category: Modern History

Explanation: M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramanya Iyer and P. Anandacharlu established the Madras Mahajana Sabha in 1884.

Q38. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

  1. Liberty of thought
  2. Economic liberty
  3. Liberty of expression
  4. Liberty of belief

Answer: b

Category: Polity

Explanation: “LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship;” mentioned in the Preamble.

Q39. With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements:

  1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.
  2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: QCI was established in 1997 jointly by the Confederation of Indian Industry, the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry, and the Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry.

Q40. What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?

  1. To supply credit to small business units
  2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers
  3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2and 3

Answer: a

Category: Economy

Explanation: The objectives of setting up of small finance banks will be to further financial inclusion by –

  1. Provision of savings vehicles, and
  2. Supply of credit to small business units; small and marginal farmers; micro and small industries; and other unorganised sector entities, through high technology-low cost operations.

Q41. With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements:

  1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms – Policy Responses and Governance Structure’.
  2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC, and ASEAN.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘A Vision for Sustainable Urbanization in the Asia-Pacific by 2020’. ‘Emerging Urban Forms – Policy Responses and Governance Structure’ was the theme of the 6th APMCHUD held in 2016. APMCHUDs have been held in Tehran (Iran), Solo (Indonesia), Amman (Jordan) and Seoul (South Korea) apart from India.

Q42. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

  1. The intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
  2. The methods for strengthening executive leadership.
  3. A superior individual with dynamism and vision.
  4. A band of dedicated party workers.

Answer: a

Category: Polity

Explanation: Democracy is an ideal based on the idea of ‘consent’ of the people. Since a democracy requires decision-making by the people (voters), the process involves people’s intelligence and character.

Q43. Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’?

  1. Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.
  2. Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades.
  3. FDI inflows will drastically increase.
  4. Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.

Answer: a

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: UPI is a payment system that allows money transfer between any two bank accounts by using a smartphone.

Q44. The terns ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, ‘String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of

  1. Observation and understanding of the Universe
  2. Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses
  3. Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
  4. Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth

Answer: a

Category: Science

Explanation: These terms are Physics terms which talk about the origins and extent of the universe, the state and composition of matter, etc.

Q45. Concerning agriculture in India, how can the technique of ‘genome sequencing’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?

  1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers far disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
  2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
  3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Category: Science and technology

Explanation: All statements are correct. Genome sequencing refers to figuring out the order of DNA nucleotides, or bases in a genome—the order of As (adenine), Cs (cytosine), Gs (guanine), and Ts (thymine) that make up an organism’s DNA.

Q46. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

  1. The executive and legislature work independently.
  2. It provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
  3. The executive remains responsible to the legislature.
  4. The head of the government cannot be changed without the election.

Answer: c

Category: Polity

Q47. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

  1. Rights are correlative with Duties.
  2. Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
  3. Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
  4. Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

Answer: a

Category: Polity

Explanation: This statement is given in Indian Polity by Laxmikanth in the chapter on Fundamental Duties: Rights and duties are correlative and inseparable.

Q48. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

  1. The Preamble
  2. The Fundamental Rights
  3. The Directive Principles of State Policy
  4. The Fundamental Duties

Answer: a

Category: Polity

Explanation: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth gives the following line, which was said by Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer, a member of the Constituent Assembly, “The Preamble to our Constitution expresses what we had thought or dreamt so long.” Also, in the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble shows the general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution, and is hence a key to the minds of the Constitution-makers.

Q49. If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9

Answer: b

Category: Geography

Explanation: Nagaland-Assam-West Bengal-Odisha-Andhra Pradesh-Tamil Nadu-Kerala.

Q50. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

  1. Adjournment motion
  2. Question hour
  3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Category: Polity

Explanation: Indian Parliament exercises control over the Council of Ministers through adjournment motion, no-confidence motion, discussions, questions hour, etc. Supplementary questions are asked in the question hour.

Q51. Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?

  1. Kakinada
  2. Motupalli
  3. Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)
  4. Nelluru

Answer: b

Category: Medieval History

Explanation: This is a contentious question. From different sources, options b, c and d seem correct. But the best answer to the question would be Motupalli, since it was a very important seaport which flourished in trade owing to the abilities of the able monarch. We will have to wait for the UPSC official answer key for the official answer.

Q52. With, the reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’ which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
  2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
  3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

Category: Environment

Explanation: The GCCA was established by the EU in 2007 to strengthen dialogue and cooperation with developing countries, in particular, least developed countries (LDCs) and Small Island Developing States (SIDS). Statement 3 is incorrect since the WRI and the WBCSD work towards reducing carbon emissions through the Greenhouse Gas Protocol.

Q53. With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
  2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b

Category: Art & Culture

Explanation: Sautrantika and Sammitya were the sects of Buddhism.

Q54. The Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?

  1. Jordan
  2. Iraq
  3. Lebanon
  4. Syria

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: c

Category: Geography

Explanation: Countries that border the Mediterranean Sea are Algeria, Albania, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Cyprus, Croatia, France, Egypt, Italy, Israel, Greece, Libya, Lebanon, Monaco, Morocco, Slovenia, Montenegro, Syria, Spain, Turkey, and Tunisia.

Q55. Concerning ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
  2. It has a corpus of Rs.4,00,000 Crore at present.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: National Investment and Infrastructure Fund has been set up under SEBI regulations. It is not an organ of the NITI Aayog. Its total corpus is Rs.40,000 Crore.

Q56. The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an

  1. ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.
  2. World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of the private sector and institutional investor capital.
  3. Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private vestment.
  4. UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.

Answer: b

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: The Global Infrastructure Facility was launched by the World Bank to cater to the infrastructure needs of the emerging economies.

Q57.  For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

  1. Anyone residing in India.
  2. A resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
  3. Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
  4. Any citizen of India.

Answer: c

Category: Polity

Explanation: Options ‘a’ and ‘b’ can be eliminated because only Indian citizens can contest. Out of ‘c’ and ‘d,’‘d’ can be eliminated because minor citizens cannot contest.

Q58. Consider the following statements:

  1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.
  2. The Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
  3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Answer: b

Category: Geography

Explanation: The Western Ghats are spread over 6 states: Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Goa and Gujarat. Himalayas are spread over J&K, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Assam, West Bengal, Arunachal Pradesh, and also some parts in Haryana and Punjab. The Pulicat Lake is present in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Q59. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for

  1. Measuring oxygen levels in blood
  2. Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
  3. Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
  4. Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions

Answer: c

Category: Environment

Explanation: BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen required by aerobic biological organisms to break down organic material present in a given water sample at certain temperature over a specific time period. Higher the pollution levels in an aquatic ecosystem, the higher are the BOD levels.

Q60. Concerning the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?

  1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
  2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
  3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access-to safe drinking water and bask sanitation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 only

Answer: b

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: Statement 2 is wrong. The UN-Habitat partners with not just governments and local urban authorities, but also NGOs, trade unions, academics, researchers, professionals, indigenous peoples, private sector, financial institutions, etc.

Q61. With reference to ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)’, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

  1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning.
  2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: Under NSQF, a learner can acquire certification through both formal and informal learning. So, statement 1 is wrong.

Q62. In the context of Indian history, the-principle of ‘Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to

  1. Division of the central legislature into two houses.
  2. Introduction of double government i.e.; Central and State governments.
  3. Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.
  4. Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.

Answer: d

Category: Modern History

Q63. Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’:

  1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
  2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: National Career Service project is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India as a Mission Mode Project for establishing quick and efficient career related services.

Q64. Which of the following statements best describes the- term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news?

  1. It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.
  2. It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
  3. It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.
  4. It is an important provision in ‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government.

Answer. b

Category: Current Affairs

Q65. Consider the following statements:

  1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries;
  2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b

Category: Environment

Explanation: The CCAC is a coalition of many governments with the aim of reducing short-lived climate pollutants with initial focus on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons. The coalition has 53 partner countries along with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). The countries which took the initiative were Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden and the United States.

Q66. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. IOD phenomenon is characterized by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
  2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b

Category: Geography

Q67. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?

  1. Bhitarkanika Mangroves
  2. Chambal River
  3. Pulicat Lake
  4. Deepor Beel

Answer: b

Category: Environment and Ecology

Explanation: National Chambal Gharial Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh is a dedicated sanctuary for Gharials.

Q68. Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):

  1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
  2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: The inaugural IONS was held in India on 14 February 2008.

Q69. The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at

  1. Ajanta
  2. Badami
  3. Bagh
  4. Ellora

Answer: a

Category: Art & Culture

Explanation: Factual.

Q70. Consider the following pairs:

Traditions                                  Communities

  1. Chaliha Sahib Festival —      Sindhis
  2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra —         Gonds
  3. Wari-Warkari —                  Santhals

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. None of the above

Answer: a

Category: Art & Culture

Explanation: Only 1 is correctly matched. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra is celebrated by the Gharwali and Kumaoni people in Uttarakhand. Wari-Warkari is a Maharashtrian festival celebrated by the Warkari sect.

Q71. Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture?

  1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land
  2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field
  3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Category: Environment

Explanation: All three statements are correct.

Q72. Consider the following statements:

The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at

  1. Expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
  2. Enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
  3. Checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Category: Current Affairs

Q73. Consider the following pairs:

Commonly used materials / Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them

  1. Lipstick — Lead
  2. Soft drinks — Brominated vegetable oils
  3. Chinese fast food — Monosodiumglutamate

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Category: Science and technology

Explanation: All three are correct.

Q74. Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays?

  1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates.
  2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs.
  3. Transparent/displays are possible using OLEDs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. None of the above statements is correct

Answer: c

Category: Science and technology

Explanation: All three statements are correct.

Q75. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?

  1. Arasavalli
  2. Amarakantak
  3. Omkareshwar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

Category: Art & Culture

Explanation: Factual.

Q76. Consider the following statements:

  1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
  2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Category: Polity

Explanation: In the election for Lok Sabha, the first past the post system is followed wherein the person winning most number of votes than any other candidate is elected. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are elected from among the members of the Lok Sabha.

Q77. Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?

  1. The share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
  2. The share of India’s exports in world trade increased.
  3. FDI inflows increased.
  4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: b

Category: Economy

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because the share of agriculture in the GDP is decreasing.

Q78. What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?

  1. Production of biolarvicides
  2. Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
  3. Reproductive cloning of animals
  4. Production of organisms free of diseases

Answer: c

Category: Science and technology

Explanation: Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology is a technique for cloning of animals in which the nucleus from a healthy egg is removed and replaced with the nucleus from another cell like the skin cell. This technology was used to create the world’s first cloned mammal, Dolly the sheep.

Q79. Consider the following statements:

  1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.
  2. NCPI has launched RuPay, a card Payment scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Category: Current Affairs

Q80. The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

  1. Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
  2. Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
  3. Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
  4. Security of National Highways

Answer: b

Category: Environment

Explanation: M-STrIPES stands for Monitoring system for Tigers – Intensive Protection and Ecological Status. It is a software-enabled mobile app that will make the monitoring of tiger reserves in the country an easier, quicker and transparent process.

Q81. What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?

  1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
  2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
  3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

Category: Economy

Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct. The other two statements are probabilities and cannot be confirmed.

Q82. ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and

  1. European Union
  2. Gulf Cooperation Council
  3. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
  4. Shanghai Cooperation Organization

Answer: a

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: These negotiations have been going on since 2007 but have been in a deadlock from 2013.

Q83. Consider the following statements:

  1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
  2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
  3. TFA came into force in January 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: The third statement is incorrect because the TFA came into force in February 2017.

Q84. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?

  1. India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.
  2. India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
  3. India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
  4. Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.

Answer: c

Category: Current Affairs

“The port is central to India’s efforts to circumvent arch-rival Pakistan and open up a route to landlocked Afghanistan where it has developed close security ties and economic interests.”

Q85. In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents?

  1. Service providers
  2. Data Centres
  3. Body corporate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: It is mandatory for service providers, data centres, body corporates and persons to provide information regarding cyber security incidents or else face imprisonment and fine.

Q86. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

  1. Fundamental Right
  2. Natural Right
  3. Constitutional Right
  4. Legal Right

Answer: d

Category: Polity

Explanation: The Right to Vote comes from the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (Section 62) and hence is a legal right. The basis of this is the Universal Adult Franchise enshrined in the Constitution but since the right comes from the RPA 1951, it is in fact a legal right.

Q87. What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)’ project?

  1. To detect neutrinos
  2. To detect gravitational waves
  3. To detect the effectiveness of missile defense system
  4. To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems

Answer: b

Category: Science and technology

Explanation: The eLISA is a project of the European Space Agency to detect and measure gravitational waves.

Q88. What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’?

  1. To enable the famous foreign campuses in India.
  2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.
  3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Answer: a

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: The HRD Ministry launched the Vidyanjali scheme aimed at boosting the education system by delivering volunteer teachers to government schools. The volunteers will have the responsibility to take care of the overall development of the child and not just academics.

Q89. What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’?

  1. Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and, government’s education system and local communities.
  2. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.
  3. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological Power.
  4. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health- care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.

Answer: b

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: Refer under Unnat Bharat Abhiyan at

https://byjus.com/free-ias-prep/comprehensive-news-analysis-03-may-2016

Q90. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
  2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
  3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 3 only

Answer: d

Category: Polity

Explanation: The EC has three Election Commissioners. The EC also decides the election schedule. So, options 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Q91. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?

  1. It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
  2. It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and how it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
  3. It is endemic to a particular region of India.
  4. Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.

Answer: a

Category: Environment and ecology

Explanation: Factual. Schedule I provides maximum and absolute protection for wild animals under this Act. Offenses under these are the severest.

Q92. In India, Judicial Review implies

  1. The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
  2. The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
  3. The power of the Judiciary to review- all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
  4. The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgments given earlier in similar or different cases.

Answer: a

Category: Polity

Q93. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:

  1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
  2. Quit India Movement launched
  3. Second Round Table Conference

What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

  1. 1-2-3
  2. 2-1-3
  3. 3-2-1
  4. 3-1-2

Answer: c

Category: Modern History

Explanation: Second Round Table Conference: 1931; Quit India Movement: 1942; Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy: 1946

Q94. Consider the following statements:

  1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
  2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.

Which of the statements given- above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Either 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Category: Economy

Explanation: Both statements are incorrect.

Q95. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?

  1. Corbett National Park
  2. Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
  3. Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
  4. Sariska National Park

Answer: b

Category: Current Affairs

Explanation: Factual.

Q96. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

  1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
  2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
  3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Category: Polity

Explanation: In case of President’s Rule, the President either dissolves or suspends the State Legislative Assembly. Also it doesn’t lead to dissolution of the local bodies. The council of ministers are dismissed.

Q97. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

  1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
  2. Abolition of untouchability
  3. Protection of the interests of minorities
  4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 4 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: c

Category: Polity

Explanation: Right against exploitation includes Article 23 and 24 of the Constitution. Article 23 prohibits human trafficking and forced labour. Article 24 prohibits child labour in factories and mines.

Q98. Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?

  1. Sumatra
  2. Borneo
  3. Java
  4. Sri Lanka

Answer: a

Category: Geography

Explanation: Factual.

Q99. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

  1. An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
  2. A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
  3. A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
  4. A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

Answer: c

Category: Polity

Explanation: Class IX Civics NCERT textbook ‘Democratic Politics’ says, “Since it is not practical for all ministers to meet regularly and discuss everything, (hence) the decisions are taken in Cabinet meetings. That is why parliamentary democracy in most countries is often known as the Cabinet form of government.”

Q100. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

  1. There is an independent judiciary in India.
  2. Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
  3. The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
  4. It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

Answer: d

Category: Polity